Q1 The meeting of Indian and British political leaders during 1930
32 in London has often been referred to as the First. Second and
Third Round Table Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to
them as such because
(a) the Indian National Congress did not take part in two of them
(b) Indian parties other than the Indian National Congress
participating in the Conference represented sectional interests and
not the whole of India
(c) the British Labour Party had withdrawn from the Conference,
thereby making the proceedings of the Conference partisan
(d) it was an instance of Conference held in three sessions and not
that of three separate conferences
Q2 A redistribution of income in a country can be best brought about
through
(a) progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
(b) progressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
(c) regressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
(d) regressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
Q3 Who among the following was a prominent leader of the
Congress Socialist Party ?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(c) Pattam Thanu Pillai
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev
Q4 Consider the following landmarks in Indian education :
(i) Hindu College, Calcutta
(ii) University of Calcutta
(iii) Adam’s Report
(iv) Wood’s Despatch
The correct chronological order of these landmarks is
(a) I, III, IV, II
(b) I, IV, III, II
(c) III, I, IV, II
(d) III, II, IV, I
Q5 Prem Vatika, poems on the life of Krishna, was composed by
(a) Bihari
(b) Surdas
(c) Raskhan
(d) Kabir
Q6 Which of the following pairs of states and their important crops
are correctly matched ?
I. Kerala : Tapioca
II. Maharashtra : Cotton
III. W. Bengal : Jute
IV. Gujarat : Groundnut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q7 As per the 1991 Census, the average size of households in
terms of number of persons per household in respect of the given
states follows the sequence (highest first, lowest last).
(a) Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(b) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Gujarat, Kerala
(c) Gujarat, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
Q8 Which one of the following works has recently been made into a
full length feature film ?
(a) R. K. Narayans Malgudi Days
(b) Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children
(c) Vikram Seth’s A Suitable Boy
(d) Upamanyu Chatterjee’s English August.
Q9 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
I. Surendranath Bannerjee (A) Hind Swaraj
II. M. K. Gandhi (B) The Indian Struggle
III. Subhash Chandra Bose (C) Autobiographical Writings
IV. Lajpat Rai (D) A Nation in Making
Codes :
(a) I D, II A, III C, IV B
(b) I A, II D, III C, IV B
(c) I A, II D, III B, IV C
(d) I D, II A, III B, IV – C
Q10 Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru :
I. He was the President of the Congress Party in 1947.
II. He presided over the Constituent Assembly.
III. He formed the first Congress Ministry in United Province before
India’s independence.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) None is correct
Q11 Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet
Mission Plan ?
(a) Provincial grouping
(b) Interim Cabinet of Indians
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan
(d) Constitution framing right
Q12 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
I. Abhinav Bharat Society (A) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
II. Anushilan Samiti (B) Lala Hardayal
III. Ghadar Party (C) C. R. Das
VI. Swaraj Party (D) V. D. Savarkar
Codes:
(a) I D, II A, III C, IV B
(b) I A, II D, III C, IV B
(c) I A, II D, III B, IV C
(d) I D, II A, III B, IV – C
Q13 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Period) (Event)
I. 1883 (A) Announcement of Communal Award from Whitehall
II. 1906 (B) Formation of the AllIndia State Peoples Conference
III. 1927 (C) Foundation of Muslim League at Dacca
IV. 1932 (D) First session of National Conference at Calcutta
Codes:
(a) I D, II C, III A, IV B
(b) I C, II D, III A, IV B
(c) I D, II C, III B, IV A
(d) I C, II D, III B, IV – A
Q14 Consider the following statements :
The NonCooperation Movement led to the
I. Congress becoming a mass movement for the first time.
II. growth of HinduMuslim unity.
III. removal of fear of the British ‘might’ from the minds of the people.
IV. British government’s willingness to grant political concessions to
Indians.
Of these statements
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) II and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Q15 Which one of the following is an important historical novel
written during the latter half of the nineteenth century ?
(a) Rast Goftar
(b) Durgesh Nandini
(c) Maharatha
(d) Nibandhamala
Q16 Who among the following suggested the winding up of the
Indian National Congress after India attained independence?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Acharya Kripalani
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jayaprakash Narain
Q17 A rough outline map of northern Sri Lanka is shown in the
figure. Jaffna is located at the point marked
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q18 According to ancient Indian cosmogonic ideas the sequential
order of the cycle of four aeons (Yugas) is
(a) Dvapara, Krita, Treta and Kali
(b) Krita, Dvapara, Treta and Kali
(c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara and Kali
(d) Treta, Dvapara, Kali and Krita
Q19 Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams
and reunites a few miles farther on, thus forming the islands of
Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna
(d) Godavari
Q20 If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is
42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in
that state will be
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6
Q21 CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQ
Q22 As per the 1991 Census, which one of the following states has
a lower population density than the other three ?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Nagaland
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Manipur
Q23 Consider the map given below :
The dotted (broken) line in the map is the
(a) Durand line
(b) MacMahon line
(c) line of demarcation between India and Pakistan suggested by the
Boundary Commission (1947)
(d) route followed by the Young husband Expedition
Q24 In the Indian context the term Denotified tribes’ refers to
(a) tribes which are aboriginals
(b) nomadic tribes
(c) tribes practising shifting cultivation
(d) tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes
Q25 Which one of the following temples figured in the news
regarding the institution of the Devadasis ?
(a) Jagannath temple, Puri
(b) Pasupatinath temple, Kathmandu
(c) Kandariyamahadev temple, Khajuraho
(d) Chaunsathyogini temple, Bheraghat
Q26 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes
between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Q27 Which one of the following is correct regarding stabilization and
structural adjustment as two components of the new economic
policy adopted in India ?
(a) Stabilization is a gradual, multistep process while structural
adjustment is a quick adaptation process
(b) Structural adjustment is a gradual, multistep process, while
stabilization is a quick adaptation process
(c) Stabilization and structural adjustment are very similar and
complementary policies. It is difficult to separate one from the other
(d) Stabilization mainly deals with a set of policies which are to be
implemented by the Central Government while structural adjustment
is to be set in motion by the State Governments
Q28 The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is
(a) Sindhu
(b) Sutudri
(c) Sarasvati
(d) Ganga
Q29 Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which
one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political
weapon for the first time ?
(a) Boycott
(b) Gherao
(c) Bandh
(d) Hartal
Q30 According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which
causes the death of the largest number of people today is
(a) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Ebola
Q31 Assertion (A):
An important policy instrument of economic liberalization is reduction
in import duties on capital goods.
Reason (R):
Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to
improve technology to face the global markets.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q32 Which one of the following is not a part of early Jaina literature
?
(a) Therigatha
(b) Acarangasutra
(c) Sutrakritanga
(d) Brihatkalpasutra
Q33 The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was led by
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) Rajaguru
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q34 One of the important goals of the economic liberalisation policy
is to achieve full convertibility of the Indian rupee. This is being
advocated because
(a) convertibility of the rupee will stabilize its exchange value against
major currencies of the world
(b) it will attract more foreign capital inflow in India
(c) it will help promote exports
(d) it will help India secure loans from the world financial markets at
attractive terms
Q35 Which of the following were common to both Buddhism and
Jainism ?
I. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment.
II. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
III. Denial of efficacy of rituals
IV. Noninjury to animal life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I and II
Q36 Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is
responsible for the deflection of radio waves ?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Ionosphere
Q37 The emerging trading blocs in the world, such as NAFTA,
ASEAN and the like, are expected to
(a) act as constrictions in free trade across the world
(b) promote free trade on the lines laid down by the WTO
(c) permit transfer of technology between member countries
(d) promote trade in agricultural commodities between countries of
the North and South
Q38 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Governor General of Presidency of
Fort William in Bengal (under
Regulating Act, 1773)
(A) Archibald Percival Wavell,
Viscount and Earl Wavell
II. Governor General of India (under
Charter Act, 1833)
(B) James Andrew BrounRamsay, Earl and Marquess
of Dalhousie
III. Governor General and Viceroy of
India (under Indian Councils Act, 1858)
(C) Charles Cornwallis, 2nd
Earl and first Marquess of
Cornwallis
IV. Governor General and Crown
Representative (under Government of
India Act. 1935)
(D) Gilbert John Elliot
Murray Kynynmond, Earl of
Minto
(E) Louis Mountbatten, Earl
Mountbatten of Burma
Codes:
(a) I C, II B, III D, IV A
(b) I C, II D, III A, IV E
(c) I B, II C, III D, IV E
(d) I D, II B, III C, IV – A
Q39 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as
an ‘ecological hot spot’ ?
(a) Western Himalayas
(b) Eastern Himalayas
(c) Western ghats
(d) Eastern ghats
Q40 Which of the following were the aims behind the setting up of
the World Trade Organization (WTO) ?
I. Promotion of free trade and resource flows across countries.
II. Protection of intellectual property rights.
III. Managing balanced trade between different countries.
IV. Promotion of trade between the former East Block countries and
the western world.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and IV
Q41 In the context of ancient Indian society, which one of the
following terms does not belong to the category of the other three ?
(a) Kula
(b) Vamsa
(c) Kosa
(d) Gotra
Q42 Assertion (A) :
Areas near the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R) :
High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain in
most afternoons near the equator.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q43 Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent
assembly to frame a constitution for India ?
(a) Swaraj Party in 1934
(b) Congress Party in 1936
(c) Muslim League in 1942
(d) All Parties Conference in 1946
Q44 Nastaliq was
(a) a Persian script used in medieval India
(b) a raga composed by Tansen
(c) a cess levied by the Mughal rulers
(d) a manual of code of conduct for the Ulemas
Q45 High temperature and low pressure over the Indian SubContinent during the summer season, draws air from the Indian
Ocean leading to the inblowing of the
(a) Southeast monsoon
(b) Southwest monsoon
(c) Trade winds
(d) Westerlies
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Q46 Assertion (A) :
The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R) :
The British sovereign appointed the last GovernorGeneral of free
India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q47 Who among the following is known for his work on medicine
during the Gupta period ?
(a) Saumilla
(b) Sudraka
(c) Shaunaka
(d) Susrutha
Q48 ‘Saddle Peak’, the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar
islands, is located in
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Middle Andaman
(c) Little Andaman
(d) North Andaman
Q49 Assertion (A) :
Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and
subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts.
Reason (R) :
They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against
encroachments by sea.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q50 When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an
administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Q51 Hawala transactions relate to payments
(a) received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa
without going through the official channels
(b) received for sale/transfer of shares without going through the
established stock exchanges
(c) received as commission for services rendered to overseas
investors/buyers/ sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape
and/or in getting preferential treatment
(d) made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election
expenses
Q52 Match List I (Ores) with List II (States where they are mined)
and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists :
List I List II
I. Manganese (A) Madhya Pradesh
II. Nickel (B) Orissa
III. Leadzinc (C) Rajasthan
IV. Asbestos (D) Andhra Pradesh
Codes:
(a) I A, II C, III B, IV D
(b) I D, II C, III B, IV A
(c) I A, II B, III C, IV D
(d) I D, II B, III C, IV – A
Q53 Which one of the following sculptures invariably used green
schist as the medium ?
(a) Maurya sculptures
(b) Mathura sculptures
(c) Bharhut sculptures
(d) Gandhara sculptures.
Q54 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Idukki … Thermal power station
II. Sabarigiri … Hydroelectric project
III. Ghatprabha … Irrigation project
IV. Ramganga … Multipurpose project
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I and II
Q55 According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’
shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Q56 The Eighth FiveYear Plan is different from the earlier ones.
The critical difference lies in the fact that
(a) it has a considerably larger outlay compared to the earlier plans
(b) it has a major thrust on agricultural and rural development
(c) considerable emphasis is placed on infrastructure growth
(d) industrial licensing has been abolished
Q57 The sufi saint who maintained that devotional music was one
way of coming close to God was
(a) Muinuddin Chishti
(b) Baba Farid
(c) Saiyid Muhammad Gesudaraz
(d) Shah Alam Bukhari
Q58 Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a
good cultivation of wheat ?
(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
(c) High temperature and moderate rainfall
(d) Low temperature and low rainfall
Q59 Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the
election of the President of India but does not .form part of the forum
for his impeachment ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Q60 What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup
?
(a) Singletier structure of local selfgovernment at the village level
(b) Twotier system of local selfgovernment at the village and block
levels
(c) Threetier structure of local selfgovernment, at the village, block
and district levels
(d) Fourtier system of local selfgovernment at the village, block,
district and state levels
Q61 Mughal painting reached its zenith under
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
Q62 Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak
valley ?
(a) Jute
(b) Tea
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton
Q63 Consider the following programmes :
I. Afforestation and development of wastelands.
II. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests.
III. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of
fuel.
IV. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict
the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and
insects.
The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Q64 Consider the following statements : No one can be compelled
to sing the National Anthem since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and
expression.
II. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and
practise and propagation of religion.
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National
Anthem.
Of these statements
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I, II and III are correct
(d) None is correct
Q65 In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban
incomes. Which of the following reasons account for this ?
I. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about
scientific agriculture.
II. Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured
products.
III. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to
investment in industry.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Q66 The term apabhramsa was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to
denote
(a) outcastes among the Rajputs
(b) deviations from Vedic rituals
(c) early forms of some of the modern Indian languages
(d) nonSanskrit verse metres
Q67 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Visakhadatta (A) Medicine
II. Varahamihira (B) Drama
III. Charaka (C) Astronomy
IV. Brahmagupta (D) Mathematics
Codes:
(a) I A, II C, III D, IV B
(b) I B, II A, III C, IV D
(c) I B, II C, III A, IV D
(d) I C, II B, III A, IV – B
Q68 The rough outline map shows a portion of the Middle East. The
countries labelled A, B, C and D are respectively
(a) Syria, Iraq, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
(b) Syria, Iraq, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(c) Iraq, Syria, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(d) Iraq, Syria, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
Q69 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are
members of either House of the Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the
President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as
ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues
because of the discretionary power vested with the President of
India
Q70 Assertion (A):
Though India’s national income has gone up several fold since
1947, there has been no marked improvement in the per capita
income level.
Reason (R):
Sizeable proportion of the population of India is still living below the
poverty line.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q71 Which one of the following was a Saiva sect in ancient India ?
(a) Ajivika
(b) Mattamayura
(c) Mayamata
(d) Isanasivagurudevapaddhati
Q72 Local supply of coal is not available to
(a) TISCO, Jamshedpur
(b) VSL, Bhadravati
(c) HSL, Durgapur
(d) HSL, Bhilai
Q73 Which one of the following areas of India produces largest
amount of cotton ?
(a) Northwestern India and Gangetic West Bengal
(b) Northwestern and Western India
(c) Western and Southern India
(d) Plains of Northern India
Q74 His ‘principal forte was social and religious reform. He relied
Upon legislation to do away with social ills and worked unceasingly
for the eradication of child marriage, the purdah system ….. To
encourage consideration of social problems on a national scale, he
inaugurated the Indian National Social Conference, which for many
years met for its annual sessions alongside the Indian National
Congress.’ The reference in this passage is to
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Behramji Merwanji Malabari
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Q75 Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain
theory of Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Q76 Which one of the following has legalised euthanasia ?
(a) Texas in the USA
(b) Northern Territory in Australia
(c) Quebec in Canada
(d) Maharashtra in India
Q77 B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
(a) West Bengal
(b) the Bombay Presidency
(c) the then Madhya Bharat
(d) Punjab
Q78 “You might see a few curious Danes around, but that is
because ….. used to be Danish outpost. This quaint town with its fort
and a beautiful church, the New Jerusalem, empty streets and
deserted beach front is a quaint gem.” The place referred to in this
quotation lies on the
(a) Tamil Nadu coast
(b) Kerala coast
(c) Karnataka coast
(d) Goa coast
Q79 Which one of the following texts of ancient India allows divorce
to a wife deserted by her husband ?
(a) Kamasutra
(b) Manavadharmashastra
(c) Sukra Nitisara
(d) Arthashastra
Q80 ‘They are fantastically diverse. They speak hundreds of
languages and dialects. They comprise scores of ethnic groups.
They include highly industrialised economies and upandcoming
economies. They span half the surface of the earth and are home to
twofifths of the world’s population.” The group of countries referred
to here belongs to
(a) SAPTA
(b) APEC
(c) EC
(d) CIS
Q81 The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was
popularly known as the
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Pitt’s India Act
(c) Indian Arms Act
(d) Ilbert Bill
Q82 Assertion (A) :
The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R):
The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q83 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Naqqual … Bihar
(b) Tamasha … Orissa
(c) Ankia Nat … Assam
(d) Baha … Punjab
Q84 The Palk Bay lies between
(a) Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat
(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
(c) Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Q85. Which one of the following countries has more or less evolved
a twoparty system ?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
Q86 In medieval India, Mansabdari system was introduced mainly
for
(a) making recruitment to the army
(b) facilitating revenue collection
(c) ensuring religious harmony
(d) effecting clean administration
Q87 Which one of the following sets of commodities are exported to
India by arid and semiarid countries in the Middle East ?
(a) Raw wool and carpets
(b) Fruits and palm oil
(c) Precious stones and pearls
(d) Perfume and coffee
Q88 Which one of the following satellites is to be launched from
India in 1996?
(a) IRSP2
(b) IRSP3
(c) IRSEN
(d) IRSID
Q89 Consider the following statements:
Most international agencies which fund development programmes in
India on intergovernmental bilateral agreements, mainly provide
I. Technical assistance.
II. Soft loans which are required to be paid back with interest.
III. Grants, not required to be paid back.
IV. Food assistance to alleviate poverty.
Of these statements
(a) II and IV and correct
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) I, II and IV are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Q90 Which one of the following is a modern tank?
(a) Bhim
(b) Akash
(c) Arjun
(d) Prithvi
Q91 In the 1996 Cricket World Cup, the nontest playing countries
which participated included
(a) UAE, Kenya and Canada
(b) UAE, Kenya and Hong Kong
(c) UAE, Kenya and Holland
(d) Canada, Kenya and Hong Kong
Q92 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Guru Amar Das … Miri and Piri
(b) Guru Arjan Dev … Adi Granth
(c) Guru Ram Das … Dal Khalsa
(d) Guru Gobind Singh …. Manji
Q93 Consider the following statements :
Towards the close of 1995, the fortunes of Indian Hockey were
believed to be on the upswing because
I. India had won the Azlan Shah Cup in ‘95’.
II. India beat Pakistan in the South Asian Federation games final.
III. India had by then qualified for the Atlanta Olympics.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) II and III are correct
Q94 The following advertisement
appeared in the Times of India dated 7th August,
(a) 1931
(b) 1929
(c) 1921
(d) 1896
Q95 Consider the following items imported by India :
I. Capital goods
II. Petroleum
III. Pearls and precious stones
IV. Chemicals
V. Iron and Steel
The correct sequence of the decreasing order of these items (as per
9495 figures), in terms of value, is
(a) I, II, III, IV, V
(b) I, II, IV, III, V
(c) II, I, III, IV, V
(d) II, I, IV, V, III
Q96 Consider the following rivers :
I. Kishenganga
II. Ganga
III. Wainganga
IV. Penganga
The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged in the northsouth direction is
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) II, I, IV, III
(d) I, II, II, III
Q97 Who among the following was the first European to initiate the
policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to
acquire territories ?
(a) Clive
(b) Dupleix
(c) Albuquerque
(d) Warren Hastings
Q98 Which one of the following is a modified stem ?
(a) Carrot
(b) Sweet Potato
(c) Coconut
(d) Potato
Q99 Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier
against
(a) loss of heat from the body
(b) loss of essential body fluids
(c) loss of salts from the body
(d) entry of harmful microorganisms from the environment
Q100 Which of the following professional (s) are more likely to run
the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA ?
I. Researchers using carbon14 isotope
II. Xray technician
III. Coal miner
IV. Dyer and Painter
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(a) II alone
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Q101 Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for
plants ?
(a) Boron
(b) Zinc
(c) Sodium
(d) Copper
Q102 Of the four landmarks in medical history given below, which
one was the first to take place ?
(a) Organ transplant
(b) Bypass surgery
(c) Testtube baby
(d) Plastic surgery
Q103 The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top
priority for remedial action in India today is
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Xerophthalmia
(d) Pellagra
Q104 Living organisms require at least 27 elements of which 15 are
metals. Among these, those required in major quantities include
(a) Potassium, Manganese, Molybdenum & Calcium
(b) Potassium, Molybdenum, Copper & Calcium
(c) Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium & Calcium
(d) Sodium, Magnesium, Copper & Manganese
Q105 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Vitamin (A) Pepsin
II. Enzyme (B) Carotene
III. Hormone (C) Keratin
IV. Protein (D) Progesterone
Codes:
(a) I A, II B, III C, IV D
(b) I B, II A, III D, IV C
(c) I B, II A, III C, IV D
(d) I A, II B, III D, IV – C
Q106 Physicochemical characteristics of water in water sources
undergo changes due to
(a) aquatic macrophytes
(b) aquatic fungi
(c) effluents
(d) evapotranspiration
Q107 Ecologists have so far known, found and certified a large
number of species in the plant and animal kingdom. In terms of
members, the largest found and identified so far are from among the
(a) Fungi
(b) Plants
(c) Insects
(d) Bacteria
Q108 It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by
(a) applying trace elements in tomato fields
(b) spraying mineral solution on plants
(c) spraying hormones on flowers
(d) applying fertilizers containing radioactive elements
Q109 Which of the following are associated with diabetes mellitus, a
common disease in adults ?
I. Higher sugar level in blood
II. Lower sugar level in blood
III. Lower insulin level in blood
IV. Higher insulin level in blood
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Q110 Consider the following statements :
AIDS is transmitted
I. by sexual intercourse.
II. by blood transfusion.
III. by mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects.
IV. across the placenta.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I, II and IV are correct
(c) I, II and IV are correct
(d) I and III are correct
Q111 Which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’ ?
I. Overnutrition
II. Undernutrition
III. Imbalanced nutrition.
Select the correct answer by using the codes gives below :
(a) II alone
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Q112 People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to
suffer from all of the following diseases except
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Jaundice
(d) Fluorosis
Q113 Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of
nutritional value found in milk include
(a) calcium, potassium and iron
(b) calcium and potassium
(c) potassium and iron
(d) calcium and iron
Q114 Distancetime graph in respect of a race among four persons
is shown in the given figure. Consider the following statements in
this regard :
I. ‘A’ stood first in the race.
II. ‘C led all the way.
III. ‘D’ ran faster than others in the later part of the race.
Of these statements
(a) I and III are false and II is true
(b) I and II are false and III is true
(c) I and III are true and II is false
(d) I is true and II and III are false
Q115 When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake rises to the top, it
will
(a) increase in size
(b) decrease in size
(c) maintain its size
(d) flatten into a disklike shape
Q116 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q117 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q118 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q119 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q120 Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from
(a) diamond to glass
(b) water to glass
(c) air to water
(d) air to glass
Q121 Assertion (A):
Transformer is useful for stepping up or stepping down voltages.
Reason (R):
Transformer is a device used in D.C. circuits.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q122 Domestic electrical wiring is basically a
(a) series connection
(b) parallel connection
(c) combination of series and parallel connections
(d) series connection within each room and parallel connection
elsewhere
Q124 Consider the following statements :
At the present level of technology available in India, solar energy
can be conveniently used to
I. supply hot water to residential buildings.
II. supply water for minor irrigation projects.
III. provide street lighting.
IV. electrify a cluster of villages and small towns.
Of these statements
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct.
(b) II and IV are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Q124 A simple machine helps a person doing
(a) less work.
(b) the same amount of work with lesser force.
(c) the same amount of work.
(d) the same amount of work much faster.
Q125 Consider the following statements :
A person in a spaceship located half way between the earth and the
sun will notice that the
I. Sky is jet black.
II. Stars do not twinkle.
III. Temperature outside the spaceship is much higher than that on
the surface of the earth.
Of these statements
(a) Only III is correct
(b) I and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Q126 ‘Diamond Ring’ is a phenomenon observed
(a) at the start of a total solar eclipse
(b) at the end of a total solar eclipse
(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality trial
(d) only in the central regions of the totality trial
Q127 The alphaparticle carries two positive charges. Its mass is
very nearly equal to that of
(a) two protons
(b) an atom of helium
(c) sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons
(d) two positrons as each positron carries a single positive charge
Q129 The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to
blindness, etc.. is
(a) ethyl alcohol
(b) amyl alcohol
(c) benzyl alcohol
(d) methyl alcohol
Q129 Which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to
produce steel which can resist high temperatures and also have
high hardness and abrasion resistance ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Chromium
(c) Nickel
(d) Tungsten
Q130 Match List I (Physiological processes) with List II (Cell
organelles) and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists :
List I List II
I. Photosynthesis (A) Plasma membrane
II. Mineral uptake (B) Chloroplast
III. Respiration (C) Mitochondria
IV. Protein Synthesis (D) Ribosomes
Codes:
(a) I A, II B, III C, IV D
(b) I A, II B, III D, IV C
(c) I B, II A, III C, IV D
(d) I B, II A, III D, IV – C
Q131 Examine the following statements :
I. George attends Music classes on Monday.
II. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.
III. His Literature classes are not on Friday.
IV. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his
Mathematics classes.
V. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.
If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then
he is also free on
(a) Monday
(b) Thursday
(c) Saturday
(d) Friday
Q132 Consider the following figures :
Which one of the following conclusion can be drawn from these
figures ?
(a) The areas of the three figures are all different
(b) The areas of all the three figures are equal
(c) The perimeters of the three figures are equal
(d) The perimeters of figures I and II are equal
Q134 The following figure represents sales (in thousands) over the
period 1978 to 1983 :
The sales in 1981 exceeded that in 1979 by
(a) Rs. one hundred
(b) Rs. ten thousand
(c) Rs. one lakh
(d) Rs. ten lakh
Q134 In an accurate clock, on a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, the
minute hand will move over
(a) 520°
(b) 320°
(c) 840°
(d) 140°
Q135 Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it
should be testable and that it should be stated in a manner that it
can be refuted. Which one of the following hypotheses, fulfils these
characteristics ?
(a) Intelligent persons have good memory
(b) Some birds are animals
(c) Some businessmen are dishonest
(d) All men are mortal
Q136 If the price of a television set is increased by 25%. then by
what percentage should the new price be reduced to bring the price
back to the original level ?
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Q137 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q138 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q139 currenr afffiars mcq / Math resoning MCQ
Q140 Current affairs
The changing composition of the export trade is indicative of
structural transformation of Indian economy in favour of
modernisation. The best indicator of the trend is the
(a) relative shape of petroleum products in exports
(b) decline in the share of agricultural products in exports
(c) constant share of ores and minerals in exports
(d) increase in the share of manufactured products in exports
Q141 Math Resoning MCQ?
Q142Math Resoning MCQ
Q143.Math Resoning MCQ
Q144 Math Resoning MCQ
Q145 Math Resoning MCQ
Q146 Math Resoning MCQ
Q147 Math Resoning MCQ
Q148 Math Resoning MCQ
Q149 Math Resoning MCQ
Q150 . Math Resoning MCQ
ANSEWER
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. A 49. A 50. B 51. A 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. C 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. C 61. C 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. C 70. B 71. C 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. D 76. A 77. B 78. B 79. D 80. B 81. A 82. B 83. C 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. B 89. B 90. C 91. C 92. B 93. B 94. D 95. D 96. C 97. B 98. D 99. B 100. A 101. C 102. D 103. C 104. C 105. B 106. C 107. C 108. C 109. D 110. B 111. B 112. D 113. B 114. A 115. A 116. C 117. C 118. A 119. D 120. A 121. C 122. B 123. C 124. B 125. D 126. C 127. B 128. D 129. B 130. C 131. D 132. B 133. C 134. C 135. A 136. C 137. C 138. D 139. C 140. D 141. A 142. B 143. B 144. A 145. C 146. A 147. B 148. B 149. C 150. C