POLITY CSE PRELIMS MCQ
2022
1. Consider the following statements :
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt
of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the
High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal
Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make
laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
2. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as
advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from
recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to
legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements :
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior
recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the
President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her
assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for
joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four
ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister
of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union
Government/including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the
total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok
Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of
Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given ‘ below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
6. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the
following statements :
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any
political party
within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the
presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements :
(1) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are
the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings
of the Parliament of India.
(2) According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General
of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him
resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in India,
consider the following statements:
(1) Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless
it is entrusted with a public duty.
(2) Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may
be a Government Company.
(3) Any public minded person .can, be a petitioner to move the
Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements :
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker
may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a
candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal
opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when
presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the
appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and
duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
10. 73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule
of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best
reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to
non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special
Category State.
2021
1.
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
(a) The
Right to Equality
(b) The
Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The
Right to Freedom
(d) The
Concept of Welfare
2.
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(a) Legal
right available to citizens only
(b) Legal
right available to any person
(c) Fundamental
Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither
Fundamental Right nor legal right
3
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950?
(a) A
Democratic Republic
(b) A
Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign
Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A
Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
4
Constitutional government means
(a) a
representative government of a nation with federal structure.
(b) a
government whose Head enjoys nominal powers.
(c) a
government whose Head enjoys real power.
(d) a government limited by the terms of the
constitution
5
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and
Padma Awards:
1. Bharat Ratna and
Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma
Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The
number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a
particular year.
Which
of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 1
and 2 Only
(b) 2
and 3 Only
(c) 1
and 3 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6
Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Right
to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the
commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘
Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim
public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right
to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to
the unauthorized colonies in the city.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct:
(a) 1
only
(b) 3
only
(c) 1
and 2
(d) 2
and 3
7.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial
custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such
accused is locked up in police station, not in Jail.
2. During
judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct:
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
8.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When
a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such
prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State
Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
9.
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry
of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry
of Rural Development
(d) Ministry
of Tribal Affairs
10.
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an
unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of
law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article
14
(b) Article
28
(c) Article
32
(d) Article
44
11
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that
indicates that it is federal in character?
(a) The
independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The
Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
(c) The
Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
(d) The
Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
12.
Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
(a) A
community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of
external control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A
politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an
authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights
and safeguard their means of sustenance.
(c) A
number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long
time with their own culture, tradition, and government.
(d) A
society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an
executive responsible to the central authority, and an independent judiciary.
13.
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any
retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act
as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of
the President of India.
2. A
High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme
Court does.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
14.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There
is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A
citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A
foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any
circumstances.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) 1
and 3
(d) 2
and 3
15.
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard
of liberty in a liberal democracy?
(a) A
committed judiciary
(b) Centralization
of powers
(c) Elected
government
(d) Separation of powers
16. We
adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our
model differ from that model?
1. As
regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in
India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In
India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of
the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
17.
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar
Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for
pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In
1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the
Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime
Minister’s charge.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) Both
1 and 2
(d) Neither
1 nor 2
18.
‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Article
15
(b) Article
19
(c) Article
21
(d) Article
29
19. Consider
the following statements:
1. In
India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok
Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In
1991, Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha
constituencies
3. As
per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from
many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the
constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the
constituencies.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
Only
(b) 2
Only
(c) 1
and 3
(d) 2
and 3
2020
1.A
Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
(a) all political
parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) off the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by
it
(c) the Government is
elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is
chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a
fixed term
2.Which
part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?
(a) Directive Principles of
State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d)Seventh Schedule
3.Consider
the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic
structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and
democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for
‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the
ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4.One
common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
(a) the final goal of a
stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of
private property
(d) economic
determinism
5.In
the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic
appropriate for bureaucracy?
(a) An agency for
widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for
strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for
facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
6.The
Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a) a part of the
Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the
Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) a part of the
Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other
parts.
7.Which
reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court
3. The principles laid down in this part are to
influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
8.Consider
the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India a
person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months
even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act,
1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment
for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even
after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9.Consider
the following statements:
1. The President of India can summon a session of
the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three
sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all
three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the
Parliament is required to meet in a year.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
10.Consider
the following statements:
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more
than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with
private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance
products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits
funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
11.Rajya
Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in(
(a) the matter of
creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the
government
(d) making cut motions
12.With
reference to the funds under Members of S Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable
assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must
benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis
and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next years
4. The district authority must inspect at least
10% of all works under implementation every year
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
13.Which
one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights/incorporates protection
against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against
Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to
Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality
14.In
India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
(a) the Preamble of
the Constitution.
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy.
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional
practice
15.A
constitutional government by definition is a
(a) government by
legislature.
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party
government
(d) limited government
16.Other
than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution
of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1.Preamble
2.Directive Principles
of State Policy
3.Fundamental Duties
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17.In
India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the
following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs
1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than
Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an
annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: a
18.Along
with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the
Parliament which include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement”. The
aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
(a) Long standing
parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and
Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the
Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
2019
1.Atal Innovation
Mission is set up under the
(a) Department of
Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour
and Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship
2. Consider the
following statements:
1.The 44th Amendment
to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the
Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2.The Supreme Court of
India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being
violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the
following statements:
1.The motion to
impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2.The Constitution of
India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved
misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3.The details of the
process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in
4 the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4.If the motion for
the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion
to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of
total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members
of that House present and voting.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
4.The Ninth Schedule
was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur
Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
5.The Parliament
(Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
1.The above-mentioned
Act was amended five times.
2.The term ‘Office of
Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Under which
Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to
private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
7. With reference to
the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained
in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the
constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the
following?
(a) The decisions
taken by the. Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot
be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court
of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by
Parliament.
(c) In the event of
grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare
Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures
cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
2018
1.
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and
Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly
and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the
provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
(b) Article 17 and the
Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms
guaranteed in Part III.
(d) Article 24 and the
provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.
2.
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be
deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to
imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has
provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency
Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the
appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals
with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.
3. With reference to the election of the President
of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from
State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha
is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall
vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is
dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5.
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between
law and liberty?
(a) If there are more
laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no
liberty.
(c) If there is
liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are
changed too often, liberty is in danger.
6.
Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted
against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor
of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7.
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of
Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8.
If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of
the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of
the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of
that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is
suspended in that State.
(d) the President can
make laws relating to that State.
9.
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive
within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on
Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate
Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory
Committee
10.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be
eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to
possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of
Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary
classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted
in a accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education
institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
11.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest
party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the
Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a
minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the
Opposition.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular
law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth
Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13.
“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?
(a) Amnesty
International
(b) International
Court of Justice
(c) The office of UN
Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
2017
14.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a
five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the
election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
15.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an
independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been
clearly divided between the Centre and the States,
(c) The federating
units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement
among the federating units.
16.
Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of
ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for
strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior
individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of
dedicated party workers.
17.
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative
delegation
(d) Direct democracy
18.
Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government
is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual
liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority
of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of
expression
(d) Liberty of belief
20.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of
the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental
Rights
(c) The Directive
Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental
Duties
21.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
22.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the
Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in
factories and mines
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23.
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
24.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of
State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for
equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the
management of industries
(c) Right to work,
education and public assistance
(d) Securing living
wage and human conditions of work to workers
25.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims
of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are
privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens
against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges
of a few citizens against the many.
26.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the
Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
limitations upon
1. legislative function
2. executive function
Which of the above
statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an
Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to
enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship
between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with
Duties.
(b) Rights are
personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not
Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not
Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
29.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes
polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the
Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority
party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30.
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation
of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the
State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct
answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
31.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle
underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for
minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are
complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for
speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are
increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary
democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the
people.
(d) A device for
strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the
people is in a state of decline.
32.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in
India.
(b) a resident of the
constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name
appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of
India.
33.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by
a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President
of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been
passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34.
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and
legislature work independently.
(b) it provides
continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible
to the legislature.
(d) the head of the
government cannot be changed without election.
35.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of
Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36.
In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to
pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the
Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the
Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to
by the President.
(d) the power of the
Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different
cases.
2016
37.
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to
be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
38.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has
not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok
Sabha.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has
not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok
Sabha.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by
the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed
tenure.
Which of the
statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41.
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the
State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by
the
(a) Lok Sabha by a
simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a
majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a
simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not
less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
2015
42.
The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of
India are made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled
Tribes
(b) determine the
boundaries between States
(c) determine the
powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the
interests of all the border States
43.
The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the
following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilisation
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44.
The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
45.
Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State
Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic
democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Principles
are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India
can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular
State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman
of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47.
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is
elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can
amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot
be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
48.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject
or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for
Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual
Financial Statement.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
49.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the
Parliament, it has to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths
majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds
majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority
of the Houses
50.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is
vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman
of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51.
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for
the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of
India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account
also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
52.
Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of
India
(b) The Prime Minister
of India
(c) The Lok Sabha
Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
53.
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India”
is a provision made in the
(a) Preamble of the
Constitution
(b) Directive
Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
2014
54.
With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under
Non-Plan Expenditure?
1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies
Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
55. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of
India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
56. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in
India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
57.
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is
included in the
(a) Preamble to the
Constitution
(b) Directive Principles
of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
58.
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for
imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of
the State Government
Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
59.
Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional
Government is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual
liberty in the interest of State Authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority
of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60.
Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more
convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the
allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of
India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61.
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion
in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in
the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the
statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the
Parliament?
(a) The Committee on
Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on
Estimates
(c) The Committee on
Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on
Petitions
63.
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet
Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the
Ministries
Select the correct
answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
64.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre
and the States falls under its
(a) advisory
jurisdiction
(b) appellate
jurisdiction
(c) original
jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
65. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme
Court of India is vested in
(a) the President of
India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice
of India
(d) the Law Commission
2013
66.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same
person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
(b) The Judges of the
High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State
just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
(c) No procedure has
been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from
his/her post.
(d) In the case of a
Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by
the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
67.
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
68.
The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in
1996.Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide
self-governance
(b) To recognize
traditional rights
(c) To create
autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal
people from exploitation
69.
Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of
the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in
the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that
Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic
development and social justice.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
70.
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
71.
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process
for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights
or both?
(a) State Forest
Department
(b) District
Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/Block
Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
72.
Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can
be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in
the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be
ratified by the legislature of all the states of India.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same
person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the
High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State
just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) Nor procedure has
been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from
his/her post
(d) In the case of a
Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by
the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
74.
‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been
provided in
(a) The Preamble and
the Fundamental Rights
(b) The Preamble and
the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Fundamental
Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
75.
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental
for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive
Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights
and Fundamental Duties
76.
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may
still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of
the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha
cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may
send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may
call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
77.
Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of
India can
1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
78.
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing
international treaties
(a) With the consent
of all the States
(b) With the consent
of the majority of States
(c) With the consent
of the States concerned
(d) Without the
consent of any State
79.
Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary
Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the
Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts
of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80.
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied
institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the
Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy
confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall
be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office
during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the
President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses
of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have
the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83.
With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following
statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent
legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal
opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal
Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout
the country.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
2012
84.
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian
Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto
Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford
Act, 1919
(c) Government of
India Act, 1935
(d) Indian
Independence Act, 1947
85.
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State
Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil
code.
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable
leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are
the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties
of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite
culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social
injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of
inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of
individual and collective activity
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87.
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
(a) to allow a
discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition
members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a
reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the
proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some
members
88.
Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the
Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election
Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
89.
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following
statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of
the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at
the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six
months from the date of his/ her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of
his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
90.
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of
India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance
Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
General
4. The Report of the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
91.
A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting
of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct
answer using codes the given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
92.
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
(a) need not
necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become
a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not
necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become
a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member
of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member
of the Lok Sabha
93.
Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and
one or more States.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House
of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and
a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
94.
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the
President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the
Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the
Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the
Chief Justice of India.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
95.
Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by
the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the
existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a
resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to
create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the
election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the
President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the
functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election
Commissioners
96.
Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public
finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the
Parliament
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of
India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and
vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of
programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecast and expenditure by a
Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
97.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing
on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
2011
98. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status
of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive
educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates
a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime
Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the
statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
99.
Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a
Fundamental Duty?
(a) To vote in public
elections
(b) To develop the
scientific temper
(c) To safeguard
public property
(d) To abide by the
Constitution and respect its ideals
100.
What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used
by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a
caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the
expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both
expenditure and receipts.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
101.
The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of
India must come from
(a) The President of
India
(b) The Parliament of
India
(c) The Prime Minister
of India
(d) The Union Finance
Minister
102.
All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other
receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund
of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund
of India
(d) Deposits and
Advances Fund
103.
When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha
(a) the Budget is
modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is
referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance
Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister
submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
104.
Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above
is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
105.
The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting
the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the
following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all
panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3