1) In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently
and for intended purpose what is the importance of the office of the
CAG?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the parliament
when the president of India declares national emergency/ financial
emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the
ministries are discussed by the PAC/
3. Information form CAG reports can be used by investigating
agencies to press charges against those who have violated the
law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with audit and accounting of govt. companies.
CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate
the law.
Which of the above are correct?
1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – C
2) The endeavour of Janine suraksha yojana programme is
1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost
of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinements
Which of the above are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
Ans – A
3) The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/ her appointment
1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses
within six months
2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within
six months
3. must be a member of one of the Houses of the parliament
4. must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans – A
4. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the
following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be
challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before
the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect
any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans – C
5. Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor Transport undertakings
3. Newspaper Establishments
4. Private Medical Institutions
The Employers of which of the above can have the “ Social Security
coverage under Employees State Insurance Scheme?
1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 4 only
3. 1, 3 and only 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – D
6. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the
President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of
the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled
Castes
Select the correct answer the using the codes given below:
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – C
7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and rajyasabha calls for a
joint sitting of the parliament during the passage of
1. ordinary legislation
2. money bill
3. constitution amendment bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3
Ans – A
8. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the
reduction of rural poverty in India?
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified
backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake areaspecific scientific study of the cause of
poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure intersectoral and interdepartmental
coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of antipoverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds
intended for antipoverty programme.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – B
9. Which of the following is/ are among the fundamental Duties of
citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and
collective activity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the supreme
court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court judges, the president of India
has to consult the CJI.
2 the SC judges can be removed by the CJI only
3 the salaries of judges are charged on the consolidated fund of
India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the SC are made by the
govt only after CJI
correct
a 13
b 34
c 4
d 1234
Ans – A
11. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that
India should pursue research and development on thorium as the
future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context what advantage does
thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can
generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Correct
a ) 1
b) 23
c) 13
d) 123
Ans – D
12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly
raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
b) the UV part of the solar radiation
c) all the solar radiations
d) the infrared part of the solar radiation
Ans – D
13. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily
responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorous
d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
Ans – B
14. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the
introduction of BT brinjal in India?
1 BT brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus
into its genome.
2 the seeds of BT brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the
farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed
companies.
3 there is an apprehension that the consumption of BT brinjal may
have adverse impact on health.
4 there is some concern that the introduction of BT brinjal may have
adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Correct
a 1, 2 and 3 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 3 and 4 only
d 1,2,3 and 4
Ans – D
15. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which
genetically engineered plants have been created?
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and
space stations
4. To increase their shelf life
Ans – c
16. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the
cause of Indian National Movement was that he
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts stored
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before
anything else.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – a
17. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India
that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following
statements are correct?
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during
the Mughal Period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap users Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
18. How do you distinguish between kuchipudi and bharatnatyam
dances?
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues i found in kuchipudi
dance but not in bharatnatyam.
2 . Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a
feature of bharatnatyam but have such a form of movements.
Correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans – A
20. The Rowlatt act aimed at
a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
c) suppression of the khilafat movement
d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
Ans – B
21. The Lahore session of the Indian nat. congress 1929 is very
important in history because
1 the congress passed a resolution demanding complete
independence
2 rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that
session
3 a resolution was passed rejecting two nation theory in that session
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above
Ans – A
22. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture
called “Bhumiparsh Mudra”. it symbolizes
a) Buddha’s calling of the earth to watch over Mara and to prevent
Mara from disturbing his meditation
b) Buddha’s calling of the earth to witness his purity and chastity
despite the temptations of Mara
c ) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the
earth and finally dissolve into the earth and thus this life is transitory
d) both a and b are correct.
Ans – D
23. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
a bhakti
b image worship and yajnas
c worship of nature and yajnas
d worship of nature and bhakti
Ans – C
28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment
on India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
24. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding
Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious
texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This
would imply which of the following?
1 Other bank retains their deposits with the RBI.
2 The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3 The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Correct
a )2 and 3 only
b )1 and 2 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
26. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains
‘arise?
1. when there is an increase in the sales of a product
2 .when there is a natural increase in the value of the property
owned.
3. when you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value
due to increase in its popularity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )2 only
d )1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
27. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in
the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of govt securities from the public by the central bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3 .borrowing by the govt. from the central bank
4 .Sale of govt. secs. To the public by the central bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1
b )2 and 4 only
c )1 and 3
d )2, 3 and 4
Ans – C
28. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment
on India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans – D
29. Consider the following statement:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1. World Bank
2. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
4. Economic potential of the country in question.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1,2 ,3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans – B
30. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
a) big banks should try to open offices in each district
b )there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized
banks
c )individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive
development
d )all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits.
Ans – C
31. Consider the following:
1. Assessment of the land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil
and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
a )1 only
b )1and 2
c )2and 3
d) None
Ans – D
32. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) if ancient India that played
a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the state
and the king was the chief admen authority on them
2 .The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the
guild
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1 and 2 only
b )3 only
c )2and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3
Ans – D
33. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in
the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provide in the
a) MarleyMinto reforms 1909
b)Montagu Chelmsford act 1919
c) Govt. of India act, 1935
d )Indian independence act 1947
Ans – C
34. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import
millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future and
import it from other countries for the present use.
2 most of the power plants in India are coal based and they are not
able to get sufficient applies of coal from within the country?
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to
be imported
correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
35. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to
reach his village which was situated 5km east of the point where he
was standing .He had no instruments to find the direction but he
located the polestar, the most convenient way now to reach his
village is to walk in the
a) facing the polestar
b) opposite to the polestar
c) keeping the polestar to his left
d) keeping the polestar to his right
Ans – C
36. Recently there has been a concern over the short supply of a
group of elements called rare earth metals. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has
imposed some restrictions on their export.
2 Other than china, Australia, Canada, Chile, these elements are not
found in any country.
3 Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various
kinds of electronic items and there is growing demand for these
elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
4 1, 2 and 3
Ans – C
37) Consider the following protected areas:
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – B
38. Consider the following statements:
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to
northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India
decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans – C
39. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the
Tropical Savannah Region?
a Rainfall throughout the year
b Rainfall in winter only
c An extremely short dry season
a A definite dry and wet season
Ans – D
40. In which one among the following categories of protected areas
in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
a Biosphere reserves
b National parks
c Wetlands declared under Ramsar convention
d Wildlife sanctuaries
Ans – B
41. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – D
42. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the
category of endangered species?
a. Great Indian bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild
Ass
b. Kashmir Stag, Cheetah, Blue Bull, GIB
c. Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey, Saras (Crane)
d. Lion Tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur, Cheetah
Ans – : A
43. Consider the following statements:
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1 it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2 one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3 the blotting paper would paper would fail to function
4 the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the
earth
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – B
44. The Millenium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following
major categories of ecosystem servicesprovisioning, supporting,
regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is
supporting service?
a) Production of food and water
b) Control of climate and disease
c) Nutrient Cycling and crop pollinator
d) Maintenance of diversity
Ans – C
45. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
a )Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is
adapted to live in steppes and semidesert areas of cold high
mountains
b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its
musk
c )Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north
east India only.
d )None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Ans – A
46. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a
geographical area?
1 Global warming
2 Fragmentation of habitat
3 Invasion of alien species
4 Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – A
47. Consider the following:
1. Black necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
48. Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above
helps/help in carbon sequestration/ storage in the soil?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of them
Ans – B
49. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely
destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – A
50. Vultures used to be very common in Indian countryside some
years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to
a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
c) Scarcity of food available to them
d) a widespread, persistant and fatal disease among them
Ans – B
51. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 what is the role/ power of Gram Sabah?
1. Gram Sabah has the power to prevent alienation of land in the
scheduled area.
2. Gram Sabah has the ownership of minor forest produce
3. Recommendation of gram Sabah is required for granting
prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the scheduled
areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a 1
b 1 and 2 only
c 2 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
52. In the parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion
is
a. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public
importance
b. to leer opposition members collect information from the ministers
c to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
d to postpone th proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent
behaviour on the part of some members
Ans – A
53. How does National Biodiversity Authority help in protecting the
Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopairacy and protects the indigenous and
traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on
genetic modification of crop plants.
3 Applications for intellectual property rights related to genetic/
biological resources can not be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a 1
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Ans -C
54. The national green tribunal act. 2010 was enacted in
consonance with which of the following provisions of the constitution
of India?
1 Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life
under article 21
2 Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the
scheduled areas for the welfare of scheduled tribes under article
275
3 Powers and functions of gram Sabah as mentioned under article
243 (A)
correct
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Ans – A
55. If national water mission is properly and completely implemented
how will it impact the country?
1 Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through
recycling of waste water.
2 The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate
alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate
technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of
peninsular India
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore wells and for
installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be
completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a 1 only
b 1 and 2 only
c 3 and 4 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -B
56. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles
of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organising village panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural
opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in
th Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -B
57. Consider the following statements:
1. Union territories are not presented in the Rajya Sabah
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to
adjudicate the election disputes
3. According to the constitution of India, parliament consists of Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabah only
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a 1 Only
b 2 and 3
c 1and 3 only
d None
Ans -D
58. With reference to consumer’s rights / privileges under the
provision of law in India which of the following statements correct?
1 Consumer are empowered to take samples for food testing
2 when consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is
required to be paid.
3. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal heir can file a
complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
a 1 only
b 2 and 3 only
c 1 and 3 only
d 1, 2 and 3
Ans -C
59. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker consider the
following statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President
2 He/She need not be a member of the house at the time of his/her
election but has to become a member of the House within six moths
from the date of his/her election
3. If he/she intends to resign the letter of his/her resignation has to
be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c )1,2 and 3
d) None
Ans – B
60. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court?
1. Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the parliament or
that of Legislature of a State
3 A dispute between the Government of India and Union Territory
4 A disputes between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c)1 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Ans – C
61. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1 Bacteria
2 fungi
3 flowering plants
some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are
employed as bio pesticides?
a )1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3
Ans -D
62. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable
solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context which of the
following statements correct?
1 Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in
biomass gasification
2 The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification
consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only
3.The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can
be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion
engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a )1 only
b )2 and 3 only
c )1 and 3 only
d )1, 2 and 3
Ans – A
63. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water
purification systems?
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity
and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – A
64. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its important?
1. It is a twodimensional material and has good electrical
conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ requires for touch
screens, LCD’s and organic LED’s
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -C
65. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition
of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead
poisoning?
1 Smelting units
2 Pens pencils
3 Paints
4 Hair oils and cosmetics
select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -B
66. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
67. Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances are
used
1. In the production of plastic foams
2 in the production of tubeless tyres
3. In cleaning certain electronic components
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a 1,2 and 3 only
b 4 only
c 1, 3 and 4 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -D
68. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including
from India created the heaviest antimatter (antihelium nucleus).
What is/are the implications of the creation of antimatter?
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and
cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and
galaxies made of anti matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
69. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as
evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshirt phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space code
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c 1 ,3 and 4
d None of the above can be cited as evidence.
Ans – A
70. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of
several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they
reach the surface of the earth. What prevents them from reaching
the surface of the earth?
a. The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them toward its poles
b. Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
c. Moister in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from
reaching the surface of the Earth
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct.
Ans -A
71. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India which of
-the statements given below are correct?
1. Different kinds of specialised surgical instruments were in
common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the
beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5thcentury AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilateral was known in 7thcentury AD.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b 3 and 4 only
c 1, 3 and 4 only
d 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – C
72. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the
following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answers using the codes given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
73. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of
‘Inclusive Governance’?
1. Permitting the NonBanking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the
districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Midday Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2,3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -B
74. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
a. three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent.
b. Three main linguistic divisions in to which the languages of India
can be classified
c. three main styles of Indian temple architecture
d three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
Ans – C
75. The congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in
1939, because
a. The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
b. emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of
the ministries impossible
c. there wee widespread communal disturbances in their provinces.
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given below is correct.
Ans -D
76. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, Which of the
following are the jobs of ‘ASHA”, trained community health workers?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care
checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans -A
77. Which of the following is/ are the principal feature(s) of the
Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the
provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – C
78. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference
was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
a) Different social reforms groups or organisations of Bengal region
united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest
and to prepare appropriate petitions/ representations to the
government.
b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in
its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a
purpose
c) Behramji Malabari and M.G.Ranade decided to bring together all
the social reform groups of the country order one organisation.
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct on
this context.
Ans – C
79. Which of the following parties were established by DR. B. R.
Ambedkar?
1. The Peasants and Workers party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3 The Independent Labour Party
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
80. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on
the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the
name of a State
b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in
the State List and to create one or more All India Services
c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to
determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to
determine the number of Election Commissioners.
Ans -B
81. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve
Livelihood Mission seeks to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and
agribusiness centres in rural areas.
2. By strengthening ‘selfhelp groups’ and providing skills
development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pumpsets and microirrigation equipment free of cost of farmers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans – B
82. The MultiDimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford
Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support
covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at
household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans -D
83. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of
the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1. A design for the Goods and Services package linked to
adherence to the proposed design.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in
consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specific share of central taxes to local bodies as
grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
84. What is/ are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India
to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans -D
85. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control
over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and voteonaccount
4. A periodic or at least a midyear review of programme of the
Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a
Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans -D
86. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932 mainly
because
a) Roundtable Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in
this context.
Ans -C
87. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following
statements:
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Ans -A
88. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition
associated with economic development:
1. Low birth rate with low death rate
2. High birth rate with high death rate
3. High birth rate with low death rate
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Ans –
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 2, 1
c) 2, 3, 1
d) 3, 2, 1
Answer: C
89. In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of
Eighth Core Industries have combined weight of 37.90%. Which of
the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural Gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 5 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans -C
90. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India
have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3 4 and 5
Ans -C
91. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea
buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is welladapted to live in cold areas of
high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
92. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed
farming’?
a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
d) None of the above.
Ans -C
93. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern
Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of the forest over constitutes Protected Area Network in
this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above
characteristics?
1. Arunachal Pradesh
b) Assam
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand
Ans -A
94.Consider the following crops of India :
1.Cow pea
2.Green gram
3.Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse , fodder and green
manure?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans -D
95. Consider the following factors:
1. Rotation of the Earth
1. Air pressure and wind
1. Density of ocean water
1. Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
a) 1 and 2only
b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4.
Ans – B
96. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of
wetlands is recorded more in Gujrat as
Compared to other states
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger
than that of inland wetlands
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans -C
97.Consider the following crops of India:
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
Which of the above is/are predominantly rained crop/crops?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Ans – D
98.When you travel in Himalayas,you will see the foll. :
1. Deep gorges
2. Uturn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. steep gradients causing landsliding
Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for the
Himalayas being young fold mountains?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – D
99. Normally the temp. Decreases with the increase in height from
the earth’s surface, because
1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s
surface
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2,3
Ans -A
100. The acidification of oceans is increasing . why is this
phenomenon a cause of concern ?
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be
adversely affected
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplankton larvae will
be adversely affected
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely
affected
Which of the statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans – D